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Old 16 May 2010, 08:47 AM   #1
gjz
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Roman numeral Question

so Since i got my Chrono-Cockpit i have pretty much been glued to it, and just realized that the (4) is marked as IIII rather than IV, i then did some looking and noticed that Rolex also markes their Roman numeral this way. Does anyone know the deal here or did I get trained wrong as is it supposed to be IIII
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Old 21 May 2010, 12:12 AM   #2
2th Dr
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There are a few theories on why it's done like that, but the one I believe in is that it makes the dial more symetrical. Also, if it was done as IV, then when you rotate the watch, it would look like a VI.
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Old 26 May 2010, 06:23 PM   #3
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The symetrical dial theory is what I have heard as well. Don't know if it is correct but sounds good.

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Old 26 May 2010, 06:23 PM   #4
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The symetrical dial theory is what I have heard as well. Don't know if it is correct but sounds good.

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